Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

• A. Immediately give the medication
• B. Assess the reasons for refusal
• C. Document refusal
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Heart rate of 82/min
• C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
• C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL falls within the normal range. A low serum albumin level, as mentioned in choice B, should be reported as it may indicate malnutrition. Choices A and C are within normal ranges and would not typically require immediate reporting.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my potassium intake while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to take medication for the rest of my life.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Blurred vision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

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