ATI RN
ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Respiratory rate 50/min
- B. Blood glucose 30 mg/dL
- C. Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg
- D. Heart rate 140/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL in a newborn is significantly low and indicates hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous in a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurological issues and requires immediate attention. The other findings provided, such as a respiratory rate of 50/min, blood pressure of 60/40 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 140/min, are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by clinical signs of distress.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Nausea
- D. Increased vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.
3. A nurse is providing care for a client who is in active labor and receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contraction frequency of 2 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 90 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate of 150/min
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 90 seconds can indicate uterine tachysystole, which may lead to fetal hypoxia. Uterine tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window. Contractions every 2 minutes (Choice A) may occur in active labor but need to be assessed in conjunction with other factors. A fetal heart rate of 150/min (Choice C) is within the normal range. Urine output of 60 mL/hr (Choice D) is also within the expected range for a client in labor.
4. A nurse is providing care to a client who is in active labor. The nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask
- B. Reposition the client from side to side
- C. Increase the rate of the IV infusion
- D. Notify the provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when observing variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate is to reposition the client from side to side. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression, and repositioning the client can relieve pressure on the cord. Administering oxygen, increasing the IV infusion rate, and notifying the provider can be appropriate actions but repositioning the client takes priority in addressing variable decelerations.
5. A newborn delivered at 41 weeks of gestation is showing signs of postmaturity. Which of the following findings is an indication of fetal postmaturity?
- A. Soft, flexible ear cartilage
- B. Smooth soles without creases
- C. Thin with loose skin
- D. Vernix caseosa covering the body
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Thin with loose skin.' Postmature newborns are typically thin with loose skin due to prolonged gestation. This may result from placental insufficiency, leading to reduced subcutaneous fat stores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Soft, flexible ear cartilage (choice A) is a normal finding in newborns. Smooth soles without creases (choice B) are also typical in newborns. Vernix caseosa covering the body (choice D) is a protective, waxy coating found on newborns, which may be present in postmature infants as well.
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