Nursing Elites

1. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

2. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid deep breathing exercises
• B. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
• C. Assist the client with ambulation every 2 hours
• D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?

• A. Monitor the dressing site daily
• B. Check for redness and swelling
• C. Monitor for fever
• D. Flush the central line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Tremors
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Weight gain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.

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