Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Platelet count
• C. INR
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

2. A client who has a prescription for insulin glargine is talking to a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will mix this insulin with my regular insulin before injecting it.
• B. I will store this insulin in the refrigerator after opening it.
• C. I will take this insulin twice a day.
• D. I will inject this insulin when my blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin glargine should be stored in the refrigerator after opening to maintain its potency. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins. Choice C is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically taken once a day. Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is usually taken regardless of blood glucose levels.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 4,500/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
• D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

5. A nurse is reviewing the facility's safety protocols concerning newborn abduction with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Staff will apply the identification band after the first bath.
• B. I will not make public announcements about my baby's birth.
• C. I can remove my baby's identification band as long as they are in my room.
• D. I can leave my baby in my room while walking in the hallway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Not making public announcements about the baby's birth is crucial in preventing newborn abduction as it avoids exposing personal information. Choice A is incorrect because the identification band should be applied immediately after birth, not after the first bath. Choice C is incorrect as the baby's identification band should never be removed by the parent. Choice D is incorrect as parents should not leave their baby unattended in the room while they are outside the room.

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