ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Cross your legs when sitting to prevent discomfort.
- B. Perform range-of-motion exercises every 4 hours.
- C. Wear compression stockings daily.
- D. Apply heat to the incision site daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wear compression stockings daily.' Wearing compression stockings is essential after knee surgery to prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs when sitting can increase the risk of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because performing range-of-motion exercises every 4 hours may not be suitable for all clients post total knee arthroplasty. Choice D is incorrect as applying heat to the incision site can increase the risk of infection.
2. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
4. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
- B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
- C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
- D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?
- A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.37
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.
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