a nurse is reviewing the results of an abg performed on a client with chronic emphysema which of the following results suggests the need for further t
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bloody stools. Bloody stools are a common symptom of Crohn's disease, characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract. Weight gain (choice A) is less likely due to malabsorption issues associated with Crohn's disease. Urinary retention (choice C) is not directly related to Crohn's disease. Abdominal distention (choice D) may occur in Crohn's disease but is not as specific a finding as bloody stools.

3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid using deodorant until the incision heals. Using deodorant can lead to skin irritation, which should be prevented following a mastectomy. Choice B is incorrect because performing arm exercises should typically be delayed until recommended by the healthcare provider to prevent strain on the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as tight-fitting clothing can increase discomfort and hinder proper healing. Choice D is also incorrect because initiating arm exercises should be based on the healthcare provider's guidance and not a specific timeframe.

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