ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. The Four M's framework for Age-Friendly Health Systems includes all of the following concepts except:
- A. medication
- B. mentation
- C. mobility
- D. managed care
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Four M's framework for Age-Friendly Health Systems consists of medication, mentation, mobility, and what matters. Managed care is not part of this framework, making it the correct answer.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
3. During a focused assessment for a client with dysrhythmias, what indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Bounding pulse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulse deficit is a crucial finding in clients with dysrhythmias as it indicates ineffective cardiac contractions. A pulse deficit occurs when the apical heart rate is faster than the radial pulse rate, suggesting that some heartbeats are not generating a pulse. This can be a sign of serious heart conditions like atrial fibrillation or heart failure. The other options, such as an increased heart rate (choice A), elevated blood pressure (choice C), and bounding pulse (choice D), do not specifically indicate ineffective cardiac contractions and are not directly associated with dysrhythmias.
4. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaccine to a newborn. Before administering the vaccine, the nurse should
- A. warm the vaccine to room temperature.
- B. gently cleanse the chosen injection site.
- C. check the infant's temperature.
- D. administer the full dose at a single injection site.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a vaccine to a newborn, it is essential for the nurse to check the infant's temperature. This is important to ensure that the newborn does not have a fever, which could indicate an underlying infection or illness. Warming the vaccine to room temperature is not necessary and could be harmful. Vigorously massaging the injection site is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and tissue damage. Dividing the dose for administration to three injection sites is not standard practice for vaccine administration to a newborn.
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