four clients present to the emergency department the nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.

3. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

5. How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.

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