Nursing Elites

1. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

• A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit the client's sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.
• C. Monitor the client's urine specific gravity every 12 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's abdominal girth daily. Measuring abdominal girth helps monitor for ascites, a common complication of cirrhosis. Limiting sodium intake is important in cirrhosis but there is no specific value given, making choice A less precise. Monitoring urine specific gravity is not directly related to cirrhosis management, making choice C incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially those with fluid restrictions, so choice D is not the most appropriate intervention.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.

4. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the area with normal saline
• B. Apply antibiotic ointment
• C. Use a hydrocolloid dressing
• D. Change the dressing daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

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