Nursing Elites

1. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

• A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperthermia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

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