Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
• C. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
• D. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening gestational hypertension and should be reported to the provider. Sudden weight gain in a client with gestational hypertension can be a sign of fluid retention, which could worsen the hypertension and lead to complications like preeclampsia. The other options, blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL, and urinary output of 40 mL/hr, are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and do not pose an immediate concern that requires reporting to the provider.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Check for edema
• C. Monitor blood pressure
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate way to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. In heart failure, the body retains excess fluid, leading to weight gain. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare professionals to track fluid retention accurately. Checking for edema (Choice B) is a valuable assessment technique, but it may not be as sensitive as monitoring daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is essential in managing heart failure, but it is not the most accurate way to assess fluid overload. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important to assess respiratory status but is not directly related to fluid overload in heart failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for iron supplements. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.
• B. I will take this medication with orange juice.
• C. I should expect my stools to be black and tarry.
• D. I will take this medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client understands the teaching about iron supplements, they should know that black, tarry stools are a normal side effect. This indicates that the medication is being absorbed and working effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect because iron supplements should not be taken with milk or orange juice, as these can interfere with the absorption of iron. Choice D is also incorrect because iron supplements are usually best absorbed on an empty stomach, so taking them before bedtime may not be ideal.

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