Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes
• B. Administer aspirin 325 mg
• C. Encourage the client to use deep breathing exercises
• D. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.

3. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient with hypertension refusing medication?

• A. Educate the patient on the importance of medication
• B. Respect the patient's decision
• C. Inform the healthcare provider
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educate the patient on the importance of medication. Providing education to the patient is crucial in promoting understanding of the condition and the necessity of medication. By enhancing the patient's knowledge, healthcare providers can empower them to make informed decisions regarding their health. Choice B, respecting the patient's decision, may not be appropriate in this scenario as untreated hypertension can lead to serious complications. Choice C, informing the healthcare provider, is important but should be done after attempting to educate the patient. Choice D, exploring alternative treatment options, may be considered if the patient has concerns or side effects related to the medication, but initially, educating the patient about the importance of medication is key.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

Similar Questions