ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.
2. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 110/min.
- B. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F).
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the expected range and indicates potential renal failure, requiring immediate intervention. In postoperative patients, a urine output less than 30 mL/hr suggests inadequate renal perfusion, a concern that needs prompt attention to prevent renal complications. The heart rate of 110/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate issues.
4. A nurse is caring for an adult client who has prescriptions for multiple medications. Which of the following is an age-related change that increases the risk for adverse effects from these medications?
- A. Rapid gastric emptying
- B. Prolonged medication half-life
- C. Increased medication elimination
- D. Decreased medication sensitivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prolonged medication half-life. As clients age, their metabolism tends to slow down, leading to a prolonged half-life of medications in the body. This extended presence of drugs can increase the risk for adverse effects as the substances accumulate. Choice A, rapid gastric emptying, is not an age-related change and actually decreases the time medications spend in the stomach, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Choice C, increased medication elimination, is not an age-related change either; in fact, aging can lead to decreased renal function, affecting drug elimination. Choice D, decreased medication sensitivity, is not an age-related change that directly increases the risk for adverse effects; rather, it may lead to requiring higher doses for effectiveness but does not inherently increase the risk of adverse effects.
5. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
- D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.
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