Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate 88/min
• C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 136 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Heart rate of 82/min
• C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

4. A client is being discharged two days after a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear a tight-fitting bra for support.
• B. Avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• C. Sleep on the affected side to promote healing.
• D. Begin arm exercises 24 hours after surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks after a mastectomy. This is important to prevent complications and promote proper healing. Choice A is incorrect because tight-fitting bras can increase the risk of lymphedema and discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as sleeping on the affected side can cause discomfort and interfere with healing. Choice D is incorrect as initiating arm exercises too soon after surgery can strain the surgical site and hinder recovery.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

• A. Tomato soup
• B. Apple juice
• C. Chicken broth
• D. Cranberry juice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

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