ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.
2. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?
- A. Grapes.
- B. Apples.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Rice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
- C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
- D. Heart rate of 76/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.
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