ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.
2. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who reports paresthesia of the hands and feet. The provider should identify this manifestation as an indication of which of the following dietary deficiencies?
- A. Iron
- B. Riboflavin
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms, including paresthesia (tingling or numbness) of the hands and feet, due to its role in nerve health. Iron deficiency is more commonly associated with anemia symptoms like fatigue and pallor. Riboflavin deficiency can cause mouth and skin changes. Vitamin C deficiency is linked to scurvy symptoms like bleeding gums and easy bruising.
3. A client has a new prescription for Diltiazem. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication may cause dry mouth.
- B. You should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of fiber-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Diltiazem is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the levels of diltiazem in the blood, leading to potential toxicity and increased side effects. It is important for the client to be aware of this interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Option A is incorrect because dry mouth is not a common side effect of Diltiazem. Option C is incorrect because Diltiazem is actually used to treat rapid heart rates. Option D is unrelated to the medication and not relevant to the teaching.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.
5. You are the nurse caring for a patient who is to receive IV daunorubicin, a chemotherapeutic agent. You start the infusion and check the insertion site as per protocol. During your most recent check, you note that the IV has infiltrated so you stop the infusion. What is your main concern with this infiltration?
- A. Extravasation of the medication
- B. Discomfort to the patient
- C. Blanching at the site
- D. Hypersensitivity reaction to the medication
Correct answer: Extravasation of the medication
Rationale:
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