a nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.

5. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering morphine for pain relief is crucial for postoperative clients following a cholecystectomy to manage pain effectively. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can cause discomfort and hinder breathing. Applying a warm compress to the incision site can increase the risk of infection. Placing a pillow under the client's knees is not a priority intervention compared to pain management.

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