Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer the client several choices when scheduling activities.
• B. Confront the client when inappropriate behavior occurs.
• C. Use a calm, reassuring approach when speaking to the client.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in stimulating activities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water
• B. Ensure the client's consent is on file
• C. Check the client's identification using two identifiers
• D. Administer the blood through a 22-gauge catheter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer packed RBCs is to check the client's identification using two identifiers. This step is crucial to ensure that the right blood is given to the right client, preventing any transfusion errors. Priming the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water and administering the blood through a 22-gauge catheter are important steps but should come after confirming the client's identity. Ensuring the client's consent is on file is also important but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer packed RBCs.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the feeding using a large-bore syringe
• B. Check the placement of the tube every 8 hours
• C. Flush the tube with 5 mL of water every 6 hours
• D. Maintain the client in an upright position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the placement of the nasogastric tube every 8 hours. This is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Administering the feeding using a large-bore syringe (Choice A) is not recommended for enteral nutrition. Flushing the tube with water every 6 hours (Choice C) is not necessary for continuous enteral nutrition. Maintaining the client in an upright position (Choice D) is generally preferred to reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not the most critical action compared to verifying tube placement.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

Similar Questions