a nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

2. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is below the normal range for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 140/min, a bulging anterior fontanel, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are all common findings in a newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.

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