a nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the
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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.

3. How should a healthcare professional administer a subcutaneous injection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for administering subcutaneous injections is to insert the needle at a 45-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue, which is located just below the skin. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, while using a Z-track method is specific to intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle would not reach the subcutaneous tissue effectively.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

5. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.

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