following an extensive diagnostic workup an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome mds what assessment quest
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Nursing Elites

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Oncology Test Bank

1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

2. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

3. A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

4. A nurse is providing education to a patient with polycythemia vera about self-care strategies. What advice should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient with polycythemia vera is to drink plenty of fluids. This helps in reducing the risk of thrombosis by keeping the blood less viscous. Avoiding hot showers (Choice A) is not directly related to managing polycythemia vera. While avoiding tight and restrictive clothing (Choice C) can help improve circulation, it is not the most crucial advice for these patients. Avoiding prolonged sitting (Choice D) is important to prevent blood clots but is not as critical as staying well-hydrated.

5. A nurse works with clients who have alopecia from chemotherapy. What action by the nurse takes priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury. Alopecia makes the scalp more vulnerable to injury, so educating clients on protective measures is crucial. Choices A and B focus on emotional support and reassurance, which are important but secondary to physical safety. Referring clients to a wig shop (choice C) addresses appearance but does not directly address the physical risk associated with scalp vulnerability.

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