Nursing Elites

1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

2. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

• A. Call 911.
• B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
• C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
• D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

3. The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

• A. Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia
• C. Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
• D. Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) undergo intensive chemotherapy and/or radiation, which significantly suppresses their immune system. This immunosuppression leads to a heightened risk for infection, making it the most critical nursing diagnosis for these patients. As the body’s ability to fight off pathogens is compromised, close monitoring and interventions aimed at preventing infections are essential for their safety and recovery.

4. A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

• A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
• B. Palliative care is only provided when curative treatment is no longer an option.
• C. Palliative care includes interventions to prolong life at all costs.
• D. Palliative care provides support for both the client and their family.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
• C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
• D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

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