following an extensive diagnostic workup an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome mds what assessment quest
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Nursing Elites

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Oncology Test Bank

1. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

2. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin is not recommended during periods of bone marrow suppression as it can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can impair platelet function, further exacerbating the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate statements for a client at risk for bleeding and undergoing chemotherapy. Blowing the nose gently, being prepared for a platelet transfusion if needed, and monitoring menstrual bleeding are all important aspects of self-care during this period.

3. A nurse enters the room of a patient with bladder cancer. The patient asks the nurse about the actions of chemotherapeutic drugs. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are designed to target and destroy rapidly dividing cells, which include cancer cells. Cancer cells often divide more quickly than normal cells, and chemotherapeutic agents exploit this characteristic to inhibit their growth and promote cell death. While chemotherapy can also affect other rapidly dividing normal cells (such as those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), the primary goal is to target cancerous cells.

4. A nurse is providing care to a patient who has just received a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Risk for infection is a high priority due to the patient's compromised immune system from AML.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

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