Nursing Elites

1. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

• A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
• B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
• C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
• D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

2. A patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is undergoing chemotherapy and develops neutropenia. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient?

• A. Administering antipyretics
• B. Restricting visitors
• C. Maintaining a sterile environment
• D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection in neutropenic patients.

3. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. Gastric cancer is known to have numerous risk factors. Which of the following is not a risk factor?

• A. Diet high in sodium
• B. Diet with high amounts of chili garlic
• C. Smoking
• D. Diet high in fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A diet high in fiber is not a risk factor for gastric cancer; in fact, it is generally considered protective against cancers. High sodium intake (Choice A) has been associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer. Diets with high amounts of chili garlic (Choice B) may irritate the stomach lining, potentially contributing to the development of gastric cancer. Smoking (Choice C) is a well-established risk factor for various types of cancers, including gastric cancer.

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