diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia aml in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy the patient and the care tea
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Oncology Quiz

1. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.

2. A client with neutropenia is admitted to the hospital. What precaution is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Strict hand hygiene. Neutropenic clients have a low level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Therefore, maintaining strict hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the introduction of pathogens that could lead to infections. Limiting visitor contact (choice B) is important but not as critical as preventing the introduction of pathogens through proper hand hygiene. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) and blood products (choice D) are treatment measures and do not address the preventive aspect that hand hygiene provides.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

4. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.

5. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

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