Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?

• A. AML
• B. CML
• C. MDS
• D. ALL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.

2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

3. The nurse has educated a client on precautions to take with thrombocytopenia. What statement by the client indicates a need to review the information?

• A. I will be careful if I need enemas for constipation.
• B. I will use an electric shaver instead of a razor.
• C. I should only eat soft food that is either cool or warm.
• D. I won’t be able to play sports with my grandkids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because enemas can cause injury to a thrombocytopenic client due to the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are correct precautions for a client with thrombocytopenia. Using an electric shaver reduces the risk of cuts that could lead to bleeding. Eating soft, cool, or warm food helps prevent injuries to the oral mucosa. Avoiding activities like sports that carry a risk of injury is also advisable.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings would be of most concern?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Fatigue
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mouth sores

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Mouth sores.' Mouth sores (stomatitis) are a common and potentially serious side effect of chemotherapy. They can lead to difficulty eating, increased risk of infection, and overall decreased quality of life for the client. While alopecia, fatigue, and nausea/vomiting are also common side effects of chemotherapy, they are generally manageable and do not pose the same level of immediate concern as the development of mouth sores in a client undergoing chemotherapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?

• A. Salvage surgery
• B. Palliative surgery
• C. Prophylactic surgery
• D. Reconstructive surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic surgery refers to the preventive removal of tissues or organs at high risk for developing cancer, even when no cancer is currently present. In this case, the patient has a positive breast tumor marking test and a significant family history of breast cancer, which places her at increased risk for developing the disease. A bilateral mastectomy is performed to significantly reduce this risk by removing both breasts, thereby preventing the potential future occurrence of breast cancer.

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