a 35 year old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches vomiting and testicular pain his blood work shows reduced numbers of pl
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Oncology Questions

1. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.

2. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when choosing interventions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Essential thrombocythemia (ET) is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by an abnormally high platelet count, which increases the risk of hypercoagulation and thrombosis (blood clot formation). These clots can impair blood flow to tissues, leading to ineffective tissue perfusion. Thrombotic events, such as strokes, deep vein thrombosis, or myocardial infarctions, are common complications of ET, making Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion the most critical nursing diagnosis to prioritize. The goal of nursing interventions will be to prevent clot formation and ensure adequate blood flow to tissues.

3. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

4. A 60-year-old patient with chronic myeloid leukemia will be treated in the home setting and the nurse is preparing appropriate health education. What topic should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is typically treated with targeted therapies, such as tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), which can help control the disease and prolong survival. The effectiveness of these medications relies heavily on strict adherence to the prescribed drug regimen. Patients need to take their medication consistently and as directed to maintain therapeutic drug levels and effectively manage the disease. Non-adherence can lead to disease progression or resistance to treatment, which is why it is crucial for the nurse to emphasize this point during health education.

5. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

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