Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what?

• A. AML
• B. CML
• C. MDS
• D. ALL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer where immature lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell) proliferate uncontrollably in the bone marrow. This leads to a reduction in the production of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, causing symptoms such as fatigue, anemia, bleeding tendencies, and increased susceptibility to infection. In ALL, leukemic cell infiltration into other organs is common, which can manifest as severe headaches (due to central nervous system involvement), vomiting, and testicular pain (due to infiltration of leukemic cells into the testes). These are hallmark signs of ALL, especially in younger patients.

2. All of the following are warning signs of cancer except:

• A. Patient palpates a bump on the side of the breast
• B. Bruises are found on the body that the client cannot explain
• C. Patient often complains of impaired digestion
• D. Patient has blood-tinged sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood-tinged sputum is not a typical warning sign of cancer but rather a symptom that can indicate other serious conditions like respiratory issues or infections. Choices A, B, and C are common warning signs of cancer: palpable lumps or bumps, unexplained bruises, and persistent digestive issues are often associated with cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional for further assessment and diagnosis.

3. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

5. A client hospitalized for chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 6.1 mg/dL (61 mmol/L). The client is symptomatic but refuses blood transfusions. What medication does the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Epoetin alfa.
• B. Filgrastim.
• C. Mesna.
• D. Dexrazoxane.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, which is important for a client who refuses blood transfusions.

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