ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
2. What are the best food sources of magnesium?
- A. oils, bananas, and pork
- B. pizza, potatoes, and tomatoes
- C. milk, rice, and apples
- D. legumes, whole grains, and chocolate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: legumes, whole grains, and chocolate. These foods are rich sources of magnesium, an essential mineral that plays a role in over 300 biochemical reactions in the body. Choices A, B, and C do not contain as high levels of magnesium compared to legumes, whole grains, and chocolate.
3. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.
- A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
- B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
- C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
- D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.
4. If a child has two or more pink signs, you would classify the child as having:
- A. No disease
- B. Mild form of disease
- C. Urgent Referral
- D. Very severe disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
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