ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam
1. Each statement regarding the correlation between vitamin D and sun exposure is accurate, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. The body can produce sufficient amounts of vitamin D from sunlight.
- B. UV radiation can convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3 by penetrating uncovered skin.
- C. Sunscreen blocks the formation of vitamin D3.
- D. By the age of 70 years, the skin generally produces vitamin D at only half the level it did at the age of 20 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: While UV radiation can penetrate uncovered skin and convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3, sunscreen does block the formation of vitamin D3. Sunscreen is recommended by dermatologists to prevent sunburn and reduce the risk of skin cancer. The other choices are correct: the body can produce sufficient vitamin D from sunlight, UV radiation can convert a precursor of vitamin D to vitamin D3, and skin generally produces less vitamin D as a person ages.
2. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
- B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
- C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
- D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
- B. Grilled chicken and rice
- C. Tomato soup with saltine crackers
- D. Baked fish and steamed vegetables
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
4. What are the advantages of using internal pools of nurses for staffing purposes?
- A. Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost
- B. Centralization
- C. Staffing mix
- D. Staff satisfaction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost. Internal float pools of nurses offer advantages such as being familiar with the hospital environment and staff, which can enhance communication and collaboration. Additionally, utilizing internal nurses is more cost-effective compared to hiring agency nurses, contributing to financial savings for the healthcare facility. Choice B, Centralization, is not a direct advantage of using internal pools of nurses. Choice C, Staffing mix, is a broader concept that does not specifically address the advantages of internal nurse pools. Choice D, Staff satisfaction, is important but not directly related to the specific advantages of utilizing internal nurse pools for staffing purposes.
5. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Expect to have increased urination.
- D. Take the medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.
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