Nursing Elites

1. A client with frequent kidney stones is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit your intake of dairy products.
• B. Increase your consumption of protein-rich foods.
• C. Avoid eating tree nuts, such as almonds.
• D. Take a vitamin C supplement twice daily.

Correct answer: A: Limit your intake of dairy products.

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to limit their intake of dairy products. Dairy products are high in calcium and can contribute to kidney stone formation in susceptible individuals. Increasing protein intake may lead to higher excretion of calcium, which can exacerbate kidney stone formation. While tree nuts are high in oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation, it is not the primary concern in this case. Vitamin C supplements can increase oxalate levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of kidney stone formation, so it should not be recommended.

2. The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. "I notice when I take a vitamin E supplement, I bruise more easily."
• B. "I work nights and rarely go outside during the day."
• C. "I take warfarin, so I need to limit the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat."
• D. "My vitamin supplement has the recommended daily allowance of vitamin A."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.

3. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the:

• A. Psychological preparation of the client
• B. Physical Preparation of the client
• C. Preparation of the Environment
• D. Preparation of the Equipments

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for clients in the acute manic phase of bipolar disorder is:

• A. Risk for injury directed to self
• B. Risk for injury directed to others
• C. Impaired nutrition less than body requirements
• D. Ineffective individual coping

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

5. Characteristics of type two diabetes include all of the following except:

• A. insulin resistance
• B. blood glucose levels that rise too high
• C. blood insulin levels that rise too high
• D. rapid destruction of the pancreas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, high blood glucose levels, and high blood insulin levels. Rapid destruction of the pancreas is not a feature of this condition. The destruction of pancreatic beta cells is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes, not type 2 diabetes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are all characteristic features of type 2 diabetes, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions