Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following gauges should you prepare for spinal anesthesia if the anesthesiologist requires a pink spinal set and a blue spinal set as backup?

• A. Gauges 16 and 22
• B. Gauges 18 and 16
• C. Gauges 16 and 20
• D. Gauges 25 and 22

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has ascites secondary to liver disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Reduce complex carbohydrates to 30% of total calories.
• B. Restrict protein intake to less than 0.8 g/kg/day.
• C. Decrease daily caloric intake by 20%.
• D. Limit sodium to 2000 mg or less per day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit sodium to 2000 mg or less per day. Ascites, which is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is commonly associated with liver disease. Limiting sodium intake helps manage fluid retention by reducing the fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reducing complex carbohydrates, restricting protein intake, or decreasing caloric intake are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in liver disease.

3. What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?

• A. peanut butter
• B. oatmeal
• C. fruit preserves
• D. plain yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.

4. Which two dietary components may help decrease blood cholesterol levels?

• A. Omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber
• B. Short-chain fatty acids and insoluble fiber
• C. Trans fatty acids and potassium
• D. Cis fatty acids and calcium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber. Omega-3 fatty acids are known to reduce triglycerides, while soluble fiber helps to lower LDL cholesterol levels. Both of these components are beneficial in managing blood cholesterol levels. Choice B, short-chain fatty acids and insoluble fiber, is incorrect as they do not have the same cholesterol-lowering effects as omega-3 fatty acids and soluble fiber. Choice C, trans fatty acids and potassium, is incorrect as trans fatty acids can raise LDL cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. Choice D, cis fatty acids and calcium, is incorrect as cis fatty acids are common in natural fats and do not specifically help in reducing blood cholesterol levels.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about stress. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Protein requirements decrease in times of stress.
• B. Acute stress causes an increase in metabolism.
• C. Stress causes a positive nitrogen balance in the body.
• D. Glucose is broken down more slowly during times of stress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute stress causes an increase in metabolism. During acute stress, the body's fight-or-flight response is activated, leading to an increase in metabolism to provide energy for the body to respond to the stressor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Protein requirements actually increase during times of stress to support the body's needs. Stress typically leads to a negative nitrogen balance in the body, not a positive one. Glucose is broken down more rapidly, not slowly, during times of stress to provide immediate energy.

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