Nursing Elites

1. During which phase of the therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient about the termination of therapy?

• A. Pre-orientation
• B. Orientation
• C. Working
• D. Termination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Termination'. This phase of the therapeutic relationship is when the nurse informs the patient about the conclusion of therapy. It is during this phase that the nurse and the patient review the goals and progress made and also discuss the upcoming termination. The other phases are not the appropriate times for discussing termination. 'Pre-orientation' is the phase before the nurse-patient relationship is established; 'Orientation' is when the nurse and patient get to know each other and set goals; and 'Working' is when these goals are pursued. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. While a team effort is necessary in the operating room (OR) for efficient and quality patient care delivery, the number of people in the room should be limited for infection control purposes. Which roles comprise this team?

• A. Surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, radiologist, orderly
• B. Surgeon, assistants, scrub nurse, circulating nurse, anesthesiologist
• C. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub nurse, pathologist
• D. Surgeon, assistant surgeon, anesthesiologist, intern, scrub nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The roles typically present in an operating room team include the surgeon, assistants (which may include an assistant surgeon), scrub nurse, circulating nurse, and anesthesiologist. These roles are directly involved in the operation and patient care. Choice B is correct. Choice A includes a radiologist and an orderly, who are not typically part of the immediate surgical team in the OR. Choice C includes a pathologist, who usually works in a laboratory outside of the OR. Choice D includes an intern, who may or may not be part of the team, depending on the specific circumstances and hospital policy. These explanations make choices A, C, and D incorrect.

3. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

4. A common side effect of diuretic medications is _____.

• A. dry mouth
• B. urinary tract infection
• C. increased taste perception
• D. nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diuretic medications can lead to dry mouth due to increased fluid loss through urination, reducing saliva production.

5. Which cells in the islet of the pancreas are responsible for synthesizing insulin?

• A. Alpha cells
• B. Beta cells
• C. Gamma cells
• D. Delta cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are responsible for the production and secretion of insulin, which is crucial for regulating blood glucose levels. Alpha cells, on the other hand, produce glucagon, a hormone that raises blood glucose levels. Gamma cells and Delta cells do not exist in the islets of Langerhans; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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