Nursing Elites

1. During blood administration, what is essential for the nurse to do in order to carefully monitor for adverse reactions?

• A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
• B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
• C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
• D. Inform the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of blood administration, it's crucial for the nurse to stay with the client for the first 15 minutes. This is because most adverse reactions are likely to occur within this initial period. Monitoring the client closely during this time allows for immediate detection and response to any potential reactions. Choice B, staying with the client for the entire period of blood administration, is not typically feasible or necessary, although regular checks should be conducted. Running the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes (Choice C) is incorrect as this can actually increase the risk of adverse reactions. Informing the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction (Choice D) is an important practice, but it is not the most direct way for the nurse to monitor for adverse reactions.

2. What physiological role does phosphorus play in the body?

• A. Blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, and relaxation
• B. Calcium homeostasis, structural integrity of heart muscle
• C. No known metabolic function, caries-preventing properties
• D. ATP energy release; metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, proteins; regulates acid-base balance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Phosphorus plays a crucial role in ATP energy release, the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, and regulation of acid-base balance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phosphorus is not directly involved in blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, or calcium homeostasis. It also has known metabolic functions and is not associated with caries prevention.

3. Proteolytic enzymes are most likely to break down which food type?

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins
• C. Fats
• D. Lipids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proteolytic enzymes target proteins for breakdown into amino acids. Carbohydrates are broken down by enzymes like amylase, while fats are broken down by lipase. Lipids, which include fats, are not specifically targeted by proteolytic enzymes.

4. A nurse provides discharge instructions to a client about the food items that interact with warfarin effectiveness. Which food item indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. Cauliflower
• B. Zucchini
• C. Green beans
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cauliflower is high in vitamin K, which can interact with warfarin.

5. For a client with metabolic syndrome, which dietary change is most beneficial?

• A. Increase intake of refined sugars
• B. Decrease intake of trans fats
• C. Increase intake of red meat
• D. Decrease intake of whole grains

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Decreasing trans fats helps manage metabolic syndrome by improving lipid profiles.

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