ATI RN
ATI RN Nutrition Online Practice 2019
1. A patient with an ileostomy is suffering from frequent diarrhea. The clinician should advise the patient to increase his intake of what food to thicken stool output?
- A. celery
- B. salad greens
- C. potatoes
- D. dried beans and peas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Potatoes are starchy and can help thicken stool output, making them beneficial for patients with an ileostomy experiencing diarrhea.
2. Which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin?
- A. Oriental cabbage salad with chicken
- B. Beef enchilada, rice, and beans
- C. Ham and cheese sandwich
- D. Macaroni salad and grapefruit slices
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct meal to remove for a client taking warfarin is the 'Ham and cheese sandwich.' Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, a medication that works by decreasing the clotting ability of the blood. Vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin by promoting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high amounts of vitamin K and are therefore safer options for individuals taking warfarin.
3. What is the most common type of kidney stone?
- A. Cystine
- B. Calcium
- C. Struvite
- D. Uric acid
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common type of kidney stone is calcium-based, specifically calcium oxalate. This is usually due to high calcium levels in the urine, which can be caused by dietary factors or certain metabolic disorders. Cystine stones, on the other hand, are less common and occur in individuals with a hereditary disorder leading to excessive excretion of certain amino acids. Struvite stones are often formed in response to an infection. Uric acid stones may occur in individuals who do not consume sufficient fluids or who lose too much fluid, among other factors. Therefore, while all these substances can form stones in the kidneys, calcium stones are the most common.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30. Four weeks after nutritional counseling, which of the following evaluation findings indicates the plan of care was followed?
- A. BMI of 25
- B. Weight gain of 1.8 kg
- C. BMI of 33
- D. Weight loss of 2.7 kg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A weight loss of 2.7 kg in four weeks indicates effective adherence to a nutritional plan aimed at reducing body mass index (BMI), moving towards a healthier weight. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in weight, as shown in choice D, is the desired outcome when managing a client with a BMI of 30 to reach a healthier range.
5. Which of the following conditions is not caused by energy drinks?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Seizures
- D. Dental caries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Energy drinks are known for causing a variety of health issues, including nervousness, seizures, and an increased risk of dental caries due to their high sugar content. However, they do not cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Instead, energy drinks are associated with causing an increased or rapid heart rate, known as tachycardia. Therefore, out of the listed options, bradycardia is the condition not caused by energy drinks.
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