Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

2. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

• A. Orally, with food
• B. Orally, on an empty stomach
• C. Intramuscularly
• D. Intravenously, as a bolus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

3. A patient presents with a rash from poison ivy. The nurse knows that this is which type of hypersensitivity?

• A. Type I
• B. Type II
• C. Type III
• D. Type IV

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A rash from poison ivy is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed cell-mediated immune responses involving T cells. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed onset, typically occurring 48-72 hours after exposure to the antigen. Choice A, Type I hypersensitivity reactions, are immediate hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE antibodies. Choices B and C, Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, involve antibody-mediated cytotoxicity and immune complex deposition, respectively, which are not characteristic of poison ivy-induced rashes.

4. What laboratory tests should the nurse monitor regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy?

• A. Monitor liver function tests regularly.
• B. Monitor renal function tests regularly.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
• D. Monitor complete blood count (CBC) regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor liver function tests regularly when a male patient is receiving androgen therapy. Androgen therapy can impact liver function, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests to assess any potential adverse effects on the liver. Renal function tests (choice B) are not typically affected by androgen therapy and do not need specific monitoring for this treatment. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are more relevant in conditions like diabetes or with medications affecting blood sugar, not typically in androgen therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (choice D) is not directly impacted by androgen therapy and is not a priority for monitoring in this context.

5. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?

• A. Serotonin receptors
• B. Uric acid metabolism
• C. Liver function
• D. Cardiac function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.

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