during surgery the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end tidal carbon dioxide level at this time the nurse anesthetist
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.

2. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

3. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

4. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

5. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections. When there is a breach in the skin like in this scenario, neutrophils are quickly recruited to the site of injury to phagocytize and kill bacteria. Eosinophils are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions, making choice A incorrect. Leukotrienes are lipid mediators involved in inflammation but are not cells, so choice C is incorrect. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and play a role in immune response, but they are not the first cells to arrive at the site of a bacterial infection, making choice D incorrect.

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