ATI RN
Psychological Exam
1. Dr. Haldol has several patients with schizophrenia who appear to exhibit excessive or distorted characteristics in relation to what one might consider normal functioning. Specific symptoms include varied hallucinations and multiple delusions. According to the DSM-5, these are referred to as?
- A. Flat affect
- B. Positive symptoms
- C. Negative symptoms
- D. Catatonia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive symptoms. Positive symptoms in schizophrenia are behaviors or experiences that are added to normal functioning, such as hallucinations and delusions. These symptoms are considered 'positive' because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flat affect refers to a reduction in emotional expression, negative symptoms involve deficits in normal functioning such as reduced emotional expression or motivation, and catatonia is a state of unresponsiveness.
2. What is typically the first sign of puberty in females?
- A. Breast development
- B. Menarche
- C. Pubic hair growth
- D. Axillary hair growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast development (thelarche) is usually the first sign of puberty in females, typically beginning between ages 8 and 13. This marks the start of puberty, followed by pubic hair growth, a growth spurt, and eventually menarche (the onset of menstruation). Pubic hair growth and axillary hair growth usually follow breast development in the sequence of pubertal changes. Therefore, the first noticeable change indicating the onset of puberty in females is the development of breast buds.
3. The mother of a child with cognitive impairment calls the nurse because her son has been gagging and drooling all morning. The nurse suspects foreign body ingestion. What physiologic occurrence is most likely responsible for the presenting signs?
- A. Gastrointestinal perforation may have occurred.
- B. The object may have been aspirated.
- C. The object may be lodged in the esophagus.
- D. The object may be embedded in the stomach wall.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of gagging and drooling suggest that the foreign object is likely lodged in the esophagus. This can cause significant discomfort and potential complications, requiring immediate medical evaluation.
4. A community health nurse is reviewing primary prevention strategies for West Nile virus with a group of clients in a rural health clinic. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid exposure to deer ticks.
- B. Eliminate areas of standing water.
- C. Use a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops.
- D. Plan outdoor activities after dusk.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Eliminate areas of standing water.' This is an essential primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus as it helps prevent the breeding of mosquitoes that spread the virus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding exposure to deer ticks is more relevant for Lyme disease, using a respiratory mask when cleaning bird coops is not a primary prevention strategy for West Nile virus, and planning outdoor activities after dusk does not directly address the prevention of West Nile virus transmission.
5. A 30-year old client experiences weight loss, abdominal distention, crampy abdominal pain, and intermittent diarrhea after the birth of her 2nd child. Diagnostic tests reveal gluten-induced enteropathy. Which foods must she eliminate from her diet permanently?
- A. Milk and dairy products
- B. Protein-containing foods
- C. Cereal grains (except rice and corn)
- D. Carbohydrates
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gluten-induced enteropathy, or celiac disease, requires the elimination of gluten-containing grains like wheat, barley, and rye. Dairy, proteins, and carbohydrates are not excluded unless the client has specific intolerances.
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