Nursing Elites

1. A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?

• A. Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent
• B. Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic
• C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic
• D. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To induce diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids, a diuretic like Furosemide (Lasix) is appropriate. Furosemide helps increase urine production and reduce fluid retention. Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory agent and does not directly induce diuresis. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic and is not used to promote diuresis. Cyclophosphamide is an immunosuppressant, not an antisuppressant, and is not typically used to induce diuresis in nephrotic syndrome.

2. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

3. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch�s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

4. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing the pain level of a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following pain assessment scales should the healthcare provider use?

• A. FACES Pain rating scale
• B. Numeric pain rating scale
• C. CRIES pain assessment scale
• D. Non-communicating children's pain checklist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare provider should use the FACES pain rating scale for pediatric clients who are 3 years old and older. This scale allows the toddler to point to the face that depicts the current level of pain, making it a suitable choice for non-verbal or young children who may have difficulty expressing their pain verbally.

Similar Questions