a nurse is assessing a three year old toddler at a well child visit which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI RN

RN Pediatric Nursing 2023 ATI

1. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

2. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

3. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.

5. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.

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