ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. A child is being cared for following a head injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the child is developing diabetes insipidus?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.045
- B. Sodium level of 155
- C. Blood glucose level of 45
- D. Urine output of 35 ml per hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a child with a head injury, the development of diabetes insipidus can occur due to pituitary hypofunction, leading to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. An elevated sodium level (hypernatremia) is a key finding in diabetes insipidus due to the excessive loss of free water in the urine, resulting in increased sodium concentration in the blood.
2. A client with Ménière's disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Maintain strict bed rest
- B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Provide a low sodium diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière's disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. This helps reduce fluid retention, which can alleviate the symptoms of Ménière's disease. Maintaining strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to deconditioning. Restricting fluid intake to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying cause of Ménière's disease. Administering aspirin is not indicated for Ménière's disease and can potentially worsen symptoms.
3. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Black-colored stools
- C. Staining of teeth
- D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased bilirubin levels
- B. Decreased prothrombin time
- C. Decreased albumin levels
- D. Increased prothrombin time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
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