which agent is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

2. The mother of a 5-year-old child taking prednisone for nephrotic syndrome tells the nurse he needs to get immunizations to enter kindergarten. What does the nurse clarify about receiving immunizations while on prednisone?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No vaccinations or immunizations should be administered while the disease is active and during immunosuppressive therapy.

3. When a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin, which electrolyte should the nurse prioritize monitoring?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should primarily monitor potassium levels in a patient taking glucocorticoids and digoxin. Glucocorticoids can lead to potassium loss, potentially increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Additionally, glucocorticoids may worsen hypokalemia induced by diuretics like thiazides and loops. While calcium, magnesium, and sodium are important electrolytes to monitor in various clinical situations, they are not the priority in this specific scenario of a patient on glucocorticoids and digoxin.

4. A nurse administers naloxone (Narcan) to a post-op patient experiencing respiratory sedation. What undesirable effect would the nurse anticipate after giving this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone reverses the effects of narcotics. Although the patient�s respiratory status will improve after administration of naloxone, the pain will be more acute.

5. When teaching parents of a school-aged child with a new diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the tibia, which statement by the parents indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Osteomyelitis of the tibia typically requires antibiotic therapy for at least 4 weeks. Surgery may be necessary if the infection does not respond to antibiotics. Weight-bearing should be avoided with osteomyelitis to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a cast until healing, returning to sports immediately, and contact isolation are not primary management strategies for osteomyelitis.

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