Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

2. A school-age child is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis repair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Maintain the child on a clear liquid diet for 48 hours.
• B. Administer antibiotics for 7 days.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the surgical site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the child on NPO status for 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antibiotics for 7 days is essential postoperatively to prevent infections and complications in a child who underwent perforated appendicitis repair. This helps in reducing the risk of secondary infections and promoting healing. Clear liquid diets, warm compresses, and prolonged fasting are not the primary interventions indicated in this scenario.

3. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?

• A. The posterior fontanel is open.
• B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
• C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
• D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.

4. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Increased protein in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome, the presence of edema is due to fluid retention caused by protein loss in the urine. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, helps reduce inflammation and decrease the loss of protein in the urine, leading to a decrease in edema. Therefore, decreased edema is an indication that the prednisone treatment is effective in managing the nephrotic syndrome. Increased abdominal girth would indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. Decreased appetite is a nonspecific symptom and not a direct indicator of prednisone efficacy. Increased protein in the urine would indicate ongoing renal impairment and the ineffectiveness of the treatment.

5. A parent of a child with oral candidiasis is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will boil the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day.
• B. I will stop the medication as soon as the spots disappear.
• C. I will apply an over-the-counter steroid cream to the spots.
• D. I will mix the medication in my child's bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiling the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day is an appropriate measure to prevent reinfection of oral candidiasis. This practice helps eliminate the Candida fungus from these items, reducing the risk of the child getting reinfected. It is crucial for the parent to follow this hygienic practice consistently to ensure the child's recovery and prevent the spread of the infection.

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