ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?
- A. Morphine
- B. Pentazocine
- C. Hydrocodone
- D. Nalmefene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.
2. A child is being assessed for Kawasaki disease. Which of the following findings should be expected?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Dry, scaly skin
- C. Fever unresponsive to antipyretics
- D. Nontender cervical lymphadenopathy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Kawasaki disease, a child typically presents with a fever that is unresponsive to antipyretics because the disease is characterized by systemic inflammation. The persistent fever is a hallmark feature of the disease and can last for more than five days despite treatment with antipyretics.
3. A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is under the care of a nurse. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
- B. Maintain the child on NPO status.
- C. Monitor the child's intake and output.
- D. Implement seizure precautions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for a child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to implement seizure precautions. Meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which may trigger seizures. By implementing seizure precautions, such as padding the side rails of the bed and ensuring a clear environment, the nurse aims to prevent injury during a potential seizure episode, prioritizing the child's safety. Administering antibiotics as prescribed is essential in treating bacterial meningitis, but seizure precautions take precedence due to the immediate risk of injury. Maintaining NPO status and monitoring intake and output are important aspects of care but are not the priority when considering the risk of seizures.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?
- A. Bag-valve-mask system
- B. Sterile gauze and saline
- C. Soft arm restraints
- D. Endotracheal tube
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.
5. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
- B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
- C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
- D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.
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