Nursing Elites

1. During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, what intervention should be included in the plan of care for a child?

• A. Administer a loop diuretic.
• B. Provide a low-sodium diet.
• C. Weigh the child weekly.
• D. Provide a high-protein diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, the priority is managing fluid balance. Administering a loop diuretic is crucial to promote diuresis and reduce fluid retention, aiding in managing the condition effectively. Providing a low-sodium diet may be beneficial but is not the priority intervention during this phase. Weighing the child weekly is important for monitoring overall health but does not directly address the oliguric phase. Providing a high-protein diet is not typically recommended in acute kidney injury, especially during the oliguric phase, as it can put additional stress on the kidneys.

2. The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.

• A. You will need to change this patch every day, regardless of your pain level.
• B. This type of pain medication is not as likely to cause breathing problems.
• C. With the first patch, it will take about 24hrs before you feel the full effects.
• D. Use your heating pad for the back pain. It will also improve the patch�s effectiveness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.

3. The patient is receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding is most likely related to an adverse effect of heparin?

• A. HR of 60 bpm
• B. BP of 160/88
• C. Discolored urine
• D. Inspiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary and most serious adverse effect of heparin is bleeding. However, discolored urine can indicate bleeding into the urinary tract, which is a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy. While changes in heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) can occur due to various reasons, discolored urine specifically points towards a potential adverse effect related to heparin therapy.

4. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant brought to the clinic due to diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the healthcare provider that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Normal fontanels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia is a common early sign of dehydration in infants, especially when presenting with dry mucous membranes and diarrhea. The increased heart rate is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to dehydration. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and normal fontanels are not typically associated with early to moderate dehydration in infants.

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