Nursing Elites

1. When providing dietary teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine, which of the following foods should be avoided?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Yogurt
• C. Cream Cheese
• D. Fruit Juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Broccoli. Foods high in tyramine, such as broccoli, should be avoided when taking MAOIs like phenelzine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Yogurt, cream cheese, and fruit juice do not contain significant levels of tyramine and can be safely consumed while on phenelzine.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit the client's sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.
• C. Monitor the client's urine specific gravity every 12 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's abdominal girth daily. Measuring abdominal girth helps monitor for ascites, a common complication of cirrhosis. Limiting sodium intake is important in cirrhosis but there is no specific value given, making choice A less precise. Monitoring urine specific gravity is not directly related to cirrhosis management, making choice C incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially those with fluid restrictions, so choice D is not the most appropriate intervention.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings should be positioned in which way?

• A. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water before feedings.
• B. Place the client in a supine position during feedings.
• C. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.
• D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client with the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees is crucial during enteral feedings to prevent aspiration. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of feedings into the lungs. Option A is not necessary before feedings. Placing the client in a supine position (Option B) increases the risk of aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours (Option D) is important but not directly related to positioning during enteral feedings.

5. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication.
• D. Chew the medication for faster absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking alendronate is to remain upright for 30 minutes after administration. This helps prevent esophageal irritation, a known side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option B is incorrect as taking alendronate with food decreases its absorption. Option D is incorrect as alendronate should be swallowed whole with a full glass of water and not chewed.

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