ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?
- A. Assess the reasons for refusal
- B. Explore alternative treatment options
- C. Document the refusal
- D. Discontinue the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
- C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following findings indicate fluid overload?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hypotension
- D. Thready pulse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. When fluid accumulates in the lungs due to overload, it can lead to respiratory distress. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A) Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload; C) Hypotension refers to low blood pressure and is not a typical finding in fluid overload; D) Thready pulse may indicate poor perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid overload.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?
- A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
- B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
- C. BUN 20 mg/dL
- D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 90/min.
- B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
- C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.
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