Nursing Elites

1. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?

• A. Thiamine
• B. Riboflavin
• C. Pyridoxine
• D. Pantothenic acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

2. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?

• A. Cardiac Board Room
• B. Complete Bathroom
• C. Complete Bed Rest
• D. Complete Board Room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has experienced a left-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Impulse control difficulty
• B. Poor judgement
• C. Inability to recognize familiar objects
• D. Loss of depth perception

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who have experienced a left-hemispheric stroke may exhibit symptoms of agnosia, which is the inability to recognize familiar objects or people. This occurs due to damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, which is responsible for visual and spatial perception. Impulse control difficulty, poor judgment, and loss of depth perception are not typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes.

4. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Eupnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.

5. When a client is comatose and has advance directives stating a desire to avoid life-sustaining measures, but the family wants these measures, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Arrange for an ethics committee meeting to address the family's concerns.
• B. Support the family's decision and initiate life-sustaining measures.
• C. Complete an incident report.
• D. Encourage the family to contact an attorney.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize the client's wishes as outlined in the advance directives. By arranging for an ethics committee meeting, the nurse can facilitate discussions between the family and healthcare team to ensure that the client's wishes are respected while addressing the concerns of the family. This approach promotes ethical decision-making and collaborative communication among all involved parties, ultimately aiming to provide the best possible care for the client while considering their autonomy and preferences.

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