Nursing Elites

1. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

2. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:

• A. Infection
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Anxiety
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.

3. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

• A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
• B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
• C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
• D. Chicken bouillon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.

4. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on performing a routine assessment of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Apply a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted.
• B. Monitor ventilator settings every 8 hours.
• C. Document tube placement in centimeters at the angle of the jaw.
• D. Assess breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours is crucial in monitoring the client's respiratory status and identifying any potential complications promptly. Monitoring ventilator settings every 8 hours is important for overall ventilation management. Documenting the endotracheal tube placement accurately is essential to ensure proper positioning. Using a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted is not a recommended intervention as it can lead to complications and should be avoided.

5. When teaching about electrical fire prevention at a community health fair, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Use three-pronged grounded plugs.
• B. Cover extension cords with a rug.
• C. Check for tingling sensations around the cord to ensure electricity is working.
• D. Remove the plug from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use three-pronged grounded plugs because they are safer and reduce the risk of electrical fires. Option B is incorrect as covering extension cords with a rug can pose a fire hazard. Option C is incorrect; tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical issue, not proper functioning. Option D is unsafe; plugs should be removed from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord, to prevent damage and reduce the risk of electrical hazards.

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