Nursing Elites

1. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

2. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours.
• B. Place the client in a supine position while resting.
• C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, cardiac rehabilitation is crucial for the client's recovery. It helps improve the client's overall cardiovascular health, reduces the risk of future cardiac events, and promotes a healthy lifestyle. The other options do not directly address the importance of cardiac rehabilitation in the client's recovery process.

3. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

4. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
• B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
• C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
• D. Initiate IV access.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.

5. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

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