ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant symptom of his disorder?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Muscle irritability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can affect muscle function. The decreased potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness, cramping, and even paralysis. These symptoms can impact various muscle groups in the body, making muscle weakness the most significant symptom to monitor and address in patients with hypokalemia.
2. If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:
- A. Assault and battery
- B. Negligence
- C. Malpractice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.
3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
- B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
- C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.
4. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?
- A. Sitting
- B. Standing
- C. Genupectoral
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.
5. When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?
- A. It keeps the alveoli open and prevents atelectasis.
- B. It allows preset pressure delivered during spontaneous ventilation.
- C. It guarantees minimal minute ventilator.
- D. It delivers a preset ventilatory rate and tidal volume to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.
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