a charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam

1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

2. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

3. If a patient asks the nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse makes a false verbal statement about the physician being incompetent, it is considered slander. Slander is the act of making defamatory spoken statements or gestures. Libel, on the other hand, refers to defamatory statements that are written or published. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, and respondent superior is a legal doctrine holding an employer responsible for the actions of an employee in the course of employment.

4. A healthcare professional is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the professional demonstrating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the competency of quality improvement, which focuses on identifying system errors and implementing changes to improve patient outcomes and safety. Patient-centered care emphasizes involving patients in their care decisions, evidence-based practice involves integrating research and clinical expertise, and informatics involves using technology to improve patient care. In this scenario, the emphasis is on the process of improving quality and safety related to the incident.

5. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.

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