Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

2. Which of the following vascular system changes result from aging?

• A. Increased peripheral resistance of the blood vessels
• B. Decreased blood flow
• C. Increased workload of the left ventricle
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As individuals age, various changes occur in the vascular system. These changes include increased peripheral resistance of the blood vessels, decreased blood flow, and an increased workload of the left ventricle. Therefore, all the listed changes result from aging, making option D, 'All of the above,' the correct answer.

3. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the healthcare professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subcutaneously every 4 hr. PRN for pain.
• D. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous q 4 hr. PRN for pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct entry for documenting the prescription for morphine is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'. This entry accurately specifies the medication, dosage, route of administration, and frequency as prescribed by the provider. Options A, C, and D contain minor errors such as missing units of measurement or incorrect abbreviations, which could lead to misinterpretation or potential medication errors. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice is 'Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous'.

4. During the assessment of a client receiving packed RBCs, which finding indicates fluid overload?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Dyspnea.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Thready pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dyspnea is a key finding indicating fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. Fluid overload can lead to pulmonary edema, causing difficulty breathing or shortness of breath (dyspnea). Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload but can be more related to musculoskeletal issues. Hypotension and thready pulse are more indicative of hypovolemia (low fluid volume), not fluid overload.

5. A nurse manager is reviewing documentation with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following notations by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''OOB with assistance for breakfast''
• B. ''Given 2 mg MSO4 IM for report of pain''
• C. ''Dressing changed qd''
• D. ''Administered 8 units of regular insulin subcutaneously''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates proper documentation by specifying the action taken ('Administered'), the dose ('8 units'), the medication ('regular insulin'), and the route of administration ('subcutaneously'). This notation ensures clarity and accuracy in recording the nursing intervention, aligning with best practices in documentation.

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