ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
2. When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?
- A. Percussion of the frontal sinuses
- B. Auscultation of the trachea
- C. Inspection of the nasal mucosa
- D. Palpation of the orbital areas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.
3. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
- A. 4,500/mm³
- B. 7,000/mm³
- C. 10,000/mm³
- D. 25,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider NOT recognize as risks for complications?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing
- C. Fever
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a thoracentesis, some expected complications include dyspnea, fever, and hypotension. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing is a common and expected finding post-thoracentesis due to the procedure's nature of puncturing the chest wall. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not consider this finding as a risk for complications.
5. A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the physician
- B. Administer the medication and notify the physician
- C. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
- D. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the appearance of a rash after administering penicillin, even in a patient with no known allergies, is concerning for a potential allergic reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to withhold the medication and notify the physician. This precaution is necessary to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing an adverse reaction, as allergic reactions can range from mild to severe and require immediate intervention.
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