ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?
- A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
- B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
- C. Changes in speech and reasoning
- D. Increased intracranial pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.
2. A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone. There are a number of other items in the bag other than the phone. The nurse knows that which term best describes one's ability to sense the shape and size of an object in the absence of visualization?
- A. Stereognosis
- B. Graphesthesia
- C. Proprioception
- D. Kinesthesia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stereognosis is the correct answer. It refers to the ability to recognize objects by touch, specifically determining their shape and size without relying on visual cues. Graphesthesia, on the other hand, is the ability to recognize symbols or numbers traced on the skin. Proprioception involves the awareness of body position and movement. Kinesthesia relates to the perception of body movement.
3. What should the nurse teach the boy about anabolic steroid abuse?
- A. The ability of anabolic steroids to build muscle is greatly exaggerated in the media.
- B. Anabolic steroids are universally dangerous but are especially harmful to adolescents.
- C. The muscle mass resulting from steroid use will atrophy unless doses are continually increased.
- D. Anabolic steroids will reduce the boy's ability to perform weight-bearing exercise later in life.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because anabolic steroids are indeed universally dangerous, but they pose greater risks to adolescents due to their impact on growth and development. Choice A is incorrect because anabolic steroids do have the potential to build muscle mass, though not to the extent often portrayed in the media. Choice C is incorrect as muscle mass gained from steroid use may persist for a period even after discontinuation. Choice D is incorrect as anabolic steroids can enhance muscle performance initially, though long-term use can have adverse effects on health and not specifically on the ability to perform weight-bearing exercises.
4. Ivermectin (Stromectol) appears on a list of a patient's recent medications. The nurse who is reviewing the medications is justified in suspecting that the patient may have been receiving treatment for a parasitic infection with
- A. Entamoeba histolytica.
- B. Giardia lamblia.
- C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
- D. Plasmodium falciparum.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ivermectin (Stromectol) is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly Strongyloides stercoralis. This parasitic infection is known to respond well to Ivermectin therapy. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is typically treated with antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole, not Ivermectin. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite causing giardiasis, which is usually treated with medications like metronidazole or tinidazole, not Ivermectin. Plasmodium falciparum is a malaria-causing parasite and is not treated with Ivermectin but with antimalarial medications like chloroquine or artemisinin-based combination therapies.
5. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of nitrates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.
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