Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

• A. High sugar, low-fat diet
• B. Increased physical activity
• C. Tobacco use
• D. Low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

2. Which of the following mediates humoral immunity?

• A. Natural killer cells
• B. T cells
• C. B cells
• D. Neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Humoral immunity is mediated by B cells, not natural killer cells, T cells, or neutrophils. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are essential components of humoral immunity.

3. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

• A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
• B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
• C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
• D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

4. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

• A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
• B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
• C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
• D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

5. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the contraceptive's efficacy, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness. Therefore, patients should be advised to use additional contraception methods if they are also taking antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is incorrect since taking oral contraceptives with food does not necessarily impact their effectiveness.

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