Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

• A. High sugar, low-fat diet
• B. Increased physical activity
• C. Tobacco use
• D. Low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

2. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease include:

• A. constipation with gastric distension.
• B. bradycardia and bradypnea.
• C. hyperthermia and tachycardia.
• D. constipation and lethargy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thyroid crisis in Graves' disease typically presents with hyperthermia (high body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are a result of excessive thyroid hormone production and can lead to life-threatening complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation with gastric distension, bradycardia and bradypnea, and constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.

3. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Stool for ova and parasites
• C. Colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
• D. Rectal swab for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.

4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

5. What is the primary cause of angina?

• A. Increased oxygen demand by the heart
• B. Obstruction of the coronary arteries
• C. Lack of oxygen in the lungs
• D. Decreased blood supply to the liver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstruction of the coronary arteries. Angina is primarily caused by a reduced blood flow to the heart due to blockages or narrowing in the coronary arteries. Choice A is incorrect because while increased oxygen demand can contribute to angina symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as angina is not caused by a lack of oxygen in the lungs. Choice D is also incorrect as angina is not related to decreased blood supply to the liver.

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