ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?
- A. High sugar, low-fat diet
- B. Increased physical activity
- C. Tobacco use
- D. Low-fat diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.
2. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
- A. Excessive growth in height
- B. Signs of puberty
- C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.
3. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
4. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?
- A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
- B. Apply the gel to the lower abdomen or thighs.
- C. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is important to minimize the risk of transfer to others. Applying the gel to the lower abdomen, thighs, face, or neck can increase the risk of transfer to others, especially women and children who should avoid contact with testosterone gel. Applying it to the scalp and back is not recommended as these areas are not suitable for absorption of the medication.
5. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
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