Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)?

• A. High sugar, low-fat diet
• B. Increased physical activity
• C. Tobacco use
• D. Low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established risk factor for hypertension (HTN) as it can lead to increased blood pressure. High sugar intake and low-fat diets, as well as increased physical activity, are not directly associated with hypertension. While low-fat diets are generally recommended for overall health, they are not specifically linked to hypertension risk.

2. Which immunoglobulin is the first to appear in response to a new antigen?

• A. IgA
• B. IgG
• C. IgE
• D. IgM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen. It is produced initially during the primary immune response. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is produced in a secondary immune response and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not the initial response to a new antigen.

3. Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

• A. Decreased pupillary light response
• B. Increased GI motility
• C. Decreased short-term memory
• D. Increased cardiopulmonary rates

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

4. Ivermectin (Stromectol) appears on a list of a patient's recent medications. The nurse who is reviewing the medications is justified in suspecting that the patient may have been receiving treatment for a parasitic infection with

• A. Entamoeba histolytica.
• B. Giardia lamblia.
• C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
• D. Plasmodium falciparum.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ivermectin (Stromectol) is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly Strongyloides stercoralis. This parasitic infection is known to respond well to Ivermectin therapy. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis and is typically treated with antiprotozoal drugs like metronidazole, not Ivermectin. Giardia lamblia is a protozoan parasite causing giardiasis, which is usually treated with medications like metronidazole or tinidazole, not Ivermectin. Plasmodium falciparum is a malaria-causing parasite and is not treated with Ivermectin but with antimalarial medications like chloroquine or artemisinin-based combination therapies.

5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

• A. Between 96% and 98%
• B. Approximately 98.5%
• C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
• D. Nearly 100%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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