ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?
- A. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes
- B. Activation of opioid receptors
- C. Blocking of NMDA receptors
- D. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.
2. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. Use of antihypertensive medications
- C. History of hypertension
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.
3. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
- C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
- D. Docosanol (Abreva)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.
4. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:
- A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
- B. negative for estrogen receptor.
- C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
- D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.
5. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
- A. Adaptation
- B. Pathologic calcification
- C. Apoptosis
- D. Necrosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.
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