ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?
- A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
- D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.
2. A client has experienced a pontine stroke which has resulted in severe hemiparesis. What priority assessment should the nurse perform prior to allowing the client to eat or drink from the food tray?
- A. Evaluate the client's gag reflex.
- B. Assess the client's bowel sounds.
- C. Check the client's pupil reaction.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's gag reflex. When a client has experienced a stroke resulting in severe hemiparesis, assessing the gag reflex is crucial before allowing them to eat or drink. This assessment helps prevent aspiration, a serious complication that can occur due to impaired swallowing ability. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice B), pupil reaction (Choice C), or heart rate (Choice D) are important assessments but are not the priority in this situation where the risk of aspiration is higher.
3. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?
- A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
- B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
- C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
- D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.
4. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?
- A. White blood cell count with differential
- B. RBC, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
- C. INR and aPTT
- D. d-dimer and C-reactive protein
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.
5. A patient is starting on a new oral contraceptive. What should the nurse emphasize about the timing of the medication?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- C. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning. Choice C is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential, but it should be at the same time each day. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to reach peak effectiveness, so it is important to emphasize the need for consistent timing.
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