Nursing Elites

1. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?

• A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
• B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
• D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

3. After a patient is exposed to a specific antigen, B cells will differentiate into:

• A. B cytotoxic cells
• B. Plasma cells
• C. Bursal cells
• D. Clonal equivalents

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After exposure to a specific antigen, B cells undergo differentiation into plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies in response to the antigen. Choice A ('B cytotoxic cells') is incorrect because B cells do not differentiate into cytotoxic cells; cytotoxic cells are typically associated with T cells. Choice C ('Bursal cells') is incorrect as bursal cells are specific to birds and not relevant to human immune responses. Choice D ('Clonal equivalents') is incorrect as it does not describe the differentiation process of B cells exposed to antigens.

4. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?

• A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
• B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
• C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
• D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.

5. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of

• A. sexual dysfunction.
• B. urethral burning.
• C. kidney stones.
• D. visual disturbances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.

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