Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (SATA)

• A. Administer prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) inhaler.
• B. Assess the client for a tracheal deviation.
• C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations above 94%.
• D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation suggests the client is using accessory muscles due to difficulty in moving air into the respiratory passages caused by airway narrowing. The presence of bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation further support airway narrowing. In this situation, immediate intervention is necessary to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to support oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler may be warranted, the priority in this scenario is ensuring adequate oxygenation to address the respiratory distress.

2. A nurse cares for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been prescribed continuous oxygen therapy at home. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

• A. I plan to wear my oxygen when I exercise & feel short of breath.
• B. I will use my portable oxygen when grilling burgers in the backyard.
• C. I plan to use cotton balls to cushion the oxygen tubing on my ears.
• D. I will only smoke while I am wearing my oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cotton balls can decrease pressure ulcers from the oxygen tubing. Continuous oxygen orders mean the client should wear the oxygen at all times. Oxygen fuels a fire. Wearing oxygen while grilling & smoking increases the risk for fire.

3. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?

• A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
• B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
• C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my lungs.
• B. I will eat smaller, more frequent meals to avoid feeling bloated.
• C. I will exercise every day to improve my strength and endurance.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids to help thin my mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. While exercise is important for clients with COPD, daily exercise may be too strenuous. Clients should be encouraged to exercise regularly but should be advised to avoid overexertion. Statements A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and management of COPD symptoms.

5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

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