ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with asthma presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (SATA)
- A. Administer prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) inhaler.
- B. Assess the client for a tracheal deviation.
- C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations above 94%.
- D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation suggests the client is using accessory muscles due to difficulty in moving air into the respiratory passages caused by airway narrowing. The presence of bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation further support airway narrowing. In this situation, immediate intervention is necessary to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to support oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler may be warranted, the priority in this scenario is ensuring adequate oxygenation to address the respiratory distress.
2. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
- B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
- C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
- D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.
3. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy and receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can have clear liquids up to 2 hours before the procedure.
- B. I need to take a laxative the night before the procedure.
- C. I will be sedated during the procedure.
- D. I should avoid eating solid foods for 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients are typically instructed to avoid solid foods for 12-24 hours before a colonoscopy, not a full 24 hours. This statement indicates a need for further teaching to ensure the client follows the correct dietary instructions for the procedure.
4. When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
- A. Administer prescribed antibiotics on time.
- B. Encourage the client to use a tissue when coughing.
- C. Place the client in a private room.
- D. Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.
5. A client is vomiting. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Provide the client with an emesis basin
- B. Notify housekeeping
- C. Prevent the client from aspirating
- D. Administer an antiemetic to the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is vomiting, the priority action for the nurse is to prevent the client from aspirating. Aspiration can lead to serious respiratory complications. Providing the client with an emesis basin can be helpful but preventing aspiration takes precedence. Notifying housekeeping and administering an antiemetic are secondary actions that can be addressed once the client's safety is ensured.
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