ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?
- A. Bag valve mask device
- B. Defibrillator machine
- C. Chest tube equipment
- D. Central venous catheter tray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.
2. During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?
- A. I suggest ordering a different pain medication.
- B. This client has allergies to morphine & codeine.
- C. Dr. Smith does not prefer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds.
- D. The client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: SBAR is a structured form of communication used in healthcare settings. It stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. In this scenario, informing the on-call physician about the client's allergies to morphine & codeine falls under the 'Background' component of the SBAR format, making choice B the correct answer.
3. When preparing a client for transfer to the ICU for placement of a pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse should explain that this catheter is used to monitor which of the following conditions?
- A. Intracranial pressure
- B. Spinal cord perfusion
- C. Renal function
- D. Hemodynamic status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulmonary artery catheter is primarily used to monitor hemodynamic status. It provides essential information on cardiac output, preload, afterload, and overall cardiovascular function. This data helps healthcare providers manage the client's fluid status, cardiac function, and guide treatment interventions in critically ill patients. Monitoring intracranial pressure, spinal cord perfusion, or renal function would require different monitoring devices and techniques, not a pulmonary artery catheter.
4. A client underwent a total laryngectomy. Which of the following is the priority observation in the client's care?
- A. Patency of the intravenous line
- B. Level of pain
- C. Integrity of the dressing
- D. Need for suctioning
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following a total laryngectomy, maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction due to secretions or blood clots. Monitoring the need for suctioning takes precedence to ensure the client's airway remains patent. While monitoring pain levels, IV line patency, and dressing integrity are important aspects of care, ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning is the priority in this scenario.
5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
- A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
- B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
- C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
- D. 1700 (5:00 PM)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
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