ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Four hours later, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is much higher than previous readings & the client's mental status has changed. What action by the nurse would most likely have prevented this negative outcome?
- A. Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure
- B. Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure
- C. Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP
- D. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely action by the nurse that would have prevented the negative outcome is providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP. Supervision is essential in delegation as it involves directing, evaluating, and following up on delegated tasks. By providing adequate supervision, the nurse can ensure that tasks are performed correctly and promptly identify any issues or abnormalities, such as a significant change in vital signs or the client's mental status. This proactive approach can help prevent adverse outcomes and enhance patient safety.
2. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Albuterol (Proventil)
- B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
- C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- D. Fluticasone (Flovent)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. What is the priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring blood pressure
- B. Checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Assessing for signs of bleeding
- D. Measuring calf circumference
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing for signs of bleeding is the priority when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving heparin therapy. Heparin therapy increases the risk of bleeding complications, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial to ensure patient safety and timely intervention if needed.
4. A client is postoperative with shallow respirations at 9/min. Which acid-base imbalance should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's shallow respirations at 9/min indicate hypoventilation, leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, causing respiratory acidosis. In this scenario, the client is at risk for developing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and subsequent CO2 retention.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.
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