Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Four hours later, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is much higher than previous readings & the client's mental status has changed. What action by the nurse would most likely have prevented this negative outcome?

• A. Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure
• B. Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure
• C. Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP
• D. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely action by the nurse that would have prevented the negative outcome is providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP. Supervision is essential in delegation as it involves directing, evaluating, and following up on delegated tasks. By providing adequate supervision, the nurse can ensure that tasks are performed correctly and promptly identify any issues or abnormalities, such as a significant change in vital signs or the client's mental status. This proactive approach can help prevent adverse outcomes and enhance patient safety.

2. A patient is receiving discharge instructions after experiencing a stroke. Which instruction is most important for preventing another stroke?

• A. Take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly.
• B. Engage in physical therapy exercises.
• C. Follow a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet.
• D. Attend regular follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take prescribed antihypertensive medications regularly. Hypertension is a major risk factor for stroke, and controlling blood pressure through medication is crucial in preventing recurrent strokes. While physical therapy, diet, and follow-up appointments are also important aspects of post-stroke care, managing hypertension with medication takes precedence due to its direct impact on stroke prevention.

3. A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?

• A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
• B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
• C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
• D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats & red meat, high in vegetables & whole grains (fiber), low in salt, & low in trans-fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli & tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat & the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat & no vegetables.

4. During assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following percussion sounds should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dullness
• B. Resonance
• C. Tympany
• D. Flatness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic bronchitis, the nurse or healthcare provider would expect to hear resonant sounds upon percussion. Resonance is the normal percussion sound heard over healthy lung tissue. The other options such as dullness, tympany, and flatness are associated with different conditions or abnormalities, not typically expected in chronic bronchitis.

5. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

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