ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
2. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
3. What is reperfusion injury?
- A. Healing bone tissue after fracture
- B. Skin wound tunneling and shear
- C. Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
- D. Injury after blood transfusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reperfusion injury refers to the secondary injury that occurs after blood flow is reestablished following ischemia. This process leads to tissue damage due to the sudden reintroduction of oxygen and nutrients, causing oxidative stress, inflammation, and cell death. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the normal healing process of bone tissue after a fracture. Choice B is incorrect as it describes specific mechanisms related to skin wounds, not reperfusion injury. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a different concept, which is adverse reactions or complications that can occur after a blood transfusion, not reperfusion injury.
4. What is the primary function of the kidneys in acid-base balance?
- A. The kidneys remove hydrogen ions and retain bicarbonate ions.
- B. The kidneys convert ammonia into urea, which is excreted in the urine.
- C. The kidneys produce aldosterone to regulate sodium levels.
- D. The kidneys secrete renin to regulate blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The kidneys are crucial in maintaining acid-base balance by removing hydrogen ions to decrease acidity and retaining bicarbonate ions to increase alkalinity. Choice B is incorrect because the conversion of ammonia into urea is related to nitrogen waste excretion, not acid-base balance. Choice C is incorrect as aldosterone regulates sodium levels, not acid-base balance. Choice D is also incorrect as renin is involved in regulating blood pressure, not acid-base balance.
5. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?
- A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
- B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
- C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
- D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.
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