a secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What side effect should the nurse warn the patient about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hot flashes and abdominal discomfort.' Clomiphene citrate, commonly known as Clomid, can lead to hot flashes and abdominal discomfort as side effects. It is important for the nurse to warn the patient about these potential effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headaches and visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, as well as fatigue and depression are not commonly associated with clomiphene citrate use.

3. While planning care for an elderly patient, the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As individuals age, their immune function tends to decrease, making them more susceptible to infections and diseases. Additionally, increased age is associated with higher levels of circulating autoantibodies, which can lead to autoimmune conditions. Choice A is incorrect as aging is not typically associated with increased T cell function. Choice C is also incorrect as aging does not necessarily result in increased production of antibodies. Therefore, the correct answers are B (Decreased immune function) and D (Increased levels of circulating autoantibodies).

4. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is essential during this therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of bone fractures, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. A female client with bone metastases secondary to lung cancer is admitted for palliative radiation treatment and pain control. The client is currently experiencing pain that she rates at 9 out of 10. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing high pain levels, rated at 9 out of 10. Relaxation and distraction techniques are effective nonpharmacologic interventions for managing pain. Teaching the client guided imagery and meditation (Choice A) can also be beneficial; however, in this acute situation of severe pain, relaxation and distraction techniques are more likely to provide immediate relief. Initiating neurostimulation (Choice B) and heat therapy (Choice C) may not be suitable for immediate pain relief in this scenario and are not as commonly used for managing high pain levels in palliative care settings.

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