Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a cause of hypothyroidism?

• A. Overproduction of cortisol
• B. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
• C. Overactivity of the thyroid gland
• D. Insufficient iodine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones to meet the body's needs. This can be due to autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland, where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid tissue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Overproduction of cortisol is associated with conditions like Cushing's syndrome, overactivity of the thyroid gland is a characteristic of hyperthyroidism, and insufficient iodine intake can lead to goiter but not necessarily hypothyroidism.

2. Joseph, a 12-year-old child, complains to the school nurse about nausea and dizziness. While assessing the child, the nurse notices a black eye that looks like an injury. This is the third time in 1 month that the child has visited the nurse. Each time, the child provides vague explanations for various injuries. Which of the following is the school nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Contact the child’s parents and ask about the child’s injuries.
• B. Encourage the child to be honest about the injuries.
• C. Question the teacher about the child's injuries.
• D. Report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The school nurse's priority intervention in this situation is to report suspicion of abuse to the proper authorities. Given the pattern of unexplained injuries and vague explanations provided by the child, it raises significant concerns for possible abuse. Reporting to the appropriate authorities is crucial to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Contacting the child's parents (Choice A) may not be appropriate if abuse is suspected, as it could potentially put the child at further risk. Merely encouraging the child to be honest (Choice B) does not address the immediate safety concerns. Questioning the teacher (Choice C) is not the appropriate initial action when abuse is suspected; reporting to authorities should take precedence.

3. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

4. Mrs. Mendoza is a 75-year-old client who has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and confabulates. The nurse understands that this client:

• A. Denies confusion by being jovial.
• B. Pretends to be someone else.
• C. Rationalizes various behaviors.
• D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confabulation, a common symptom in dementia, involves filling in memory gaps with fabricated stories rather than intentionally pretending to be someone else (Choice B), denying confusion by being jovial (Choice A), or rationalizing various behaviors (Choice C). Confabulation is not a deliberate act but a memory error that results in the creation of false memories.

5. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

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