Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

2. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

• A. paresthesias.
• B. bone pain.
• C. dark urine.
• D. diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dark urine. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can cause the urine to appear dark or tea-colored, a condition known as myoglobinuria. This is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present as direct symptoms of rhabdomyolysis. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, bone pain is not a primary symptom of rhabdomyolysis, and diarrhea is not a common complaint associated with this condition.

3. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?

• A. Risk for infection related to decreased erythropoiesis
• B. Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
• C. Powerlessness related to sequelae of renal failure
• D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to inadequate erythropoietin synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.

4. Mrs. Mendoza is a 75-year-old client who has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and confabulates. The nurse understands that this client:

• A. Denies confusion by being jovial.
• B. Pretends to be someone else.
• C. Rationalizes various behaviors.
• D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confabulation, a common symptom in dementia, involves filling in memory gaps with fabricated stories rather than intentionally pretending to be someone else (Choice B), denying confusion by being jovial (Choice A), or rationalizing various behaviors (Choice C). Confabulation is not a deliberate act but a memory error that results in the creation of false memories.

5. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

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