Nursing Elites

1. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true?

• A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she cannot use the title RN.
• B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States.
• C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state.
• D. The RN license is a mandatory license.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because if the nurse's home state participates in the compact agreement, she can practice in other states that are part of the agreement, but she must still renew her license in her home state. This is necessary to maintain an active license in her home state. Choice A is incorrect because upon graduation, the nurse can use the title RN if licensed, but it's not automatic. Choice B is incorrect because while the NCLEX is a national exam, the nurse needs to meet individual state requirements for licensure in each state. Choice D is incorrect because an RN license is not permissive but rather a mandatory license to practice nursing.

2. What is the role of the Joint Commission in healthcare?

• A. Advocacy for patients
• B. Setting standards for patient care
• C. Providing direct patient care
• D. Approving healthcare facilities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Approving healthcare facilities.' The Joint Commission's primary role is to accredit and certify healthcare organizations and programs in the United States. This accreditation ensures that healthcare facilities meet specific quality and safety standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Joint Commission focuses on evaluating and accrediting healthcare facilities rather than advocating for patients, providing direct care, or setting standards for patient care.

3. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

• A. Blood pressure screening
• B. Administering medications
• C. Developing a care plan
• D. Providing rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

4. While interviewing for a position at City Hospital, the nurse asks about the organizational structure of the institution. She is told that the hospital is organized into departments based on specialty (e.g., nursing, dietary, pharmacy, etc.). Based on what you know about organizational structure, select the structure in this example.

• A. Parallel
• B. Functional
• C. Service-integrated
• D. Matrix

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Functional. In functional structures, employees are grouped into departments based on specialty, allowing individuals with similar skills and tasks to work together efficiently. In this scenario, organizing the hospital into departments such as nursing, dietary, and pharmacy based on their specialties exemplifies a functional organizational structure. Choice A, Parallel structure, involves independent units working on similar tasks, which is not the case here. Choice C, Service-integrated structure, emphasizes cross-functional teamwork across various departments, which is not the main focus in the scenario. Choice D, Matrix structure, involves employees reporting to multiple managers for different projects or tasks, which is not described in the scenario.

5. Which of the following is an example of an effective conflict resolution strategy?

• A. Ignoring the conflict
• B. Assigning blame to one party
• C. Encouraging open communication
• D. Enforcing strict rules

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging open communication is an effective conflict resolution strategy because it promotes transparency, understanding, and collaboration among individuals involved in the conflict. By encouraging open communication, parties can express their perspectives, concerns, and needs, leading to the identification of common ground and potential solutions. This approach fosters a positive and constructive environment for resolving conflicts and can help prevent misunderstandings and escalation of issues. Choices A, B, and D are not effective conflict resolution strategies. Ignoring the conflict can lead to unresolved issues, assigning blame can escalate tensions and hinder problem-solving, and enforcing strict rules may not address the underlying causes of the conflict or promote mutual understanding.

Similar Questions