Nursing Elites

1. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true?

• A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she cannot use the title RN.
• B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States.
• C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state.
• D. The RN license is a mandatory license.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because if the nurse's home state participates in the compact agreement, she can practice in other states that are part of the agreement, but she must still renew her license in her home state. This is necessary to maintain an active license in her home state. Choice A is incorrect because upon graduation, the nurse can use the title RN if licensed, but it's not automatic. Choice B is incorrect because while the NCLEX is a national exam, the nurse needs to meet individual state requirements for licensure in each state. Choice D is incorrect because an RN license is not permissive but rather a mandatory license to practice nursing.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

3. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates?

• A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.
• B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so.
• C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
• D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive.

4. What is the process of helping an employee to improve performance called?

• A. Coaching
• B. Disciplining
• C. Mentoring
• D. Peer reviewing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Coaching. Coaching involves providing guidance and support to help an employee enhance their performance by focusing on skill development, addressing weaknesses, and achieving professional growth. Mentoring (choice C) is about guiding and nurturing a less experienced individual, not specifically aimed at improving performance. Peer reviewing (choice D) involves colleagues evaluating each other's performance, not necessarily focused on improvement. Disciplining (choice B) is taking corrective actions in response to policy violations or performance issues, which is different from the process of helping an employee improve their performance.

5. Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered care?

• A. Provider-centered decision making
• B. Timely discharge
• C. Respect for patient preferences
• D. Focusing on clinical outcomes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respect for patient preferences. Patient-centered care focuses on involving patients in their care decisions and respecting their preferences. Choice A, provider-centered decision making, goes against the concept of patient-centered care as it prioritizes the provider over the patient. Timely discharge, choice B, is important but not a defining component of patient-centered care. Focusing on clinical outcomes, choice D, is essential in healthcare but does not solely represent patient-centered care, which is more about personalized care and involving patients in decision-making.

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