Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client with vision loss, which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care to assist the client with feeding?

• A. Arrange food in a consistent pattern on the client's plate
• B. Thicken liquids on the client's tray
• C. Provide small-handled utensils for the client
• D. Assign a staff member to feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has vision loss, arranging food in a consistent pattern on the plate can help them locate and identify different food items more easily. This intervention promotes independence and allows the client to feed themselves with greater ease. Thicking liquids on the tray, providing small-handled utensils, or assigning a staff member to feed the client may not directly address the client's need for assistance with feeding due to vision loss. Thicking liquids is more related to swallowing difficulties, providing small-handled utensils can be helpful for clients with limited dexterity, and assigning a staff member to feed the client may not promote independence.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a female client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following laboratory results would be a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. BUN 21 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)
• B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
• C. Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL)
• D. Sodium 132 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with hypovolemia, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L to the provider. Hypovolemia can lead to electrolyte imbalances, and hyperkalemia (potassium level above 5.0 mEq/L) is a serious condition that can result in cardiac arrhythmias and requires immediate attention. The other laboratory results, BUN, creatinine, and sodium, are also important in assessing renal function and fluid balance, but the priority in this case is the elevated potassium level due to its potential life-threatening complications.

3. Which of the following best describes the concept of just culture in a healthcare organization?

• A. A culture of blaming individuals for mistakes
• B. A culture of encouraging reporting and learning from errors
• C. A culture of punishing individuals for errors
• D. A culture of ignoring errors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Just culture in a healthcare organization promotes a blame-free environment where individuals are encouraged to report errors and focus on learning from them to improve patient safety and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect as just culture does not involve blaming individuals. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the principles of just culture by advocating for punishment rather than learning. Choice D is incorrect as just culture aims to address errors constructively rather than ignore them.

4. Which regulatory body mandates the provision of immunizations, especially for hepatitis B?

• A. American Nurses Association (ANA)
• B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
• C. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
• D. State board of nursing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B - Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA mandates that the hepatitis B vaccine series must be offered to healthcare workers who are not immune to hepatitis. This requirement aims to protect healthcare workers from occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, including the hepatitis B virus. The American Nurses Association (ANA) (Choice A) is a professional organization for nurses, not a regulatory body. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) (Choice C) focuses on accrediting healthcare organizations for quality and safety, not mandating immunizations. The State board of nursing (Choice D) is responsible for regulating nursing practice within a specific state, not mandating immunizations.

5. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

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