two rns are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance which of the following is a reason for an rn to have a professional liability
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1. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Professional liability insurance is essential for nurses to have as it may cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. Option A is incorrect as there are expenses involved in frivolous lawsuits. Option B is incorrect because if a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse. Option D is incorrect as nurses can also be sued for malpractice, not just doctors.

2. Which of the following is one of the sources used to determine the reason for voluntary turnover?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Exit interviewing.' Exit interviews are a crucial source used to determine the reasons for voluntary turnover. During exit interviews, departing employees provide valuable insights into their reasons for leaving, which can help organizations identify areas for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Following-up phone calls and benchmarking are not commonly used methods for determining the reasons behind voluntary turnover. While employee questioning can be a part of the exit interview process, the primary source mentioned in the context of voluntary turnover is exit interviewing.

3. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

4. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse advocate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Advocate for patient needs.' A nurse advocate's primary role is to stand up for the patient's rights and ensure their needs are met. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as while nurses do provide direct patient care, the specific role of a nurse advocate goes beyond that. Choice C, 'Manage nursing staff,' is incorrect as this pertains to a nurse manager's role, not a nurse advocate. Choice D, 'Ensure policy adherence,' is also incorrect as this reflects more of a quality assurance or compliance role, rather than the advocacy role of a nurse advocate.

5. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

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