Nursing Elites

1. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?

• A. No expenses are involved in frivolous lawsuits.
• B. If a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse.
• C. Liability policies may also cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations.
• D. Only doctors are sued for malpractice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Professional liability insurance is essential for nurses to have as it may cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. Option A is incorrect as there are expenses involved in frivolous lawsuits. Option B is incorrect because if a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution can sue the nurse. Option D is incorrect as nurses can also be sued for malpractice, not just doctors.

2. During a staffing crisis, managers may need to use nurse extenders. These individuals are better known as:

• A. Float RNs.
• B. Unlicensed assistive personnel.
• C. LPNs.
• D. Agency nurses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a staffing crisis, managers may need to utilize unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) as nurse extenders. UAPs help free up nurses' time, enabling them to focus more on direct client care. Float RNs (Choice A) refer to registered nurses who work in various units as needed, not specifically as nurse extenders during crises. LPNs (Choice C) are licensed practical nurses, not typically used as nurse extenders. Agency nurses (Choice D) are temporary nurses hired from external agencies, not necessarily designated as nurse extenders.

3. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
• B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
• C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
• D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

5. For a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements, which goal is most important?

• A. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%.
• B. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss.
• C. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.
• D. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important goal for a 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes and imbalanced nutrition due to more than body requirements is to reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. This goal directly addresses the management of diabetes and is crucial in preventing complications associated with high blood sugar levels. Choice B focuses on weight loss, which may be beneficial but is not as critical as controlling blood sugar levels. Choice C, distributing calories throughout the day, is important for glycemic control but not as immediate as reaching a target HbA1c level. Choice D, stating the reasons for eliminating simple sugars, is a good educational goal but not as urgent as achieving glycemic control.

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