which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist cns
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a clinical nurse specialist (CNS)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) serves as a consultant for nursing staff, providing expert advice and guidance on clinical practice. Choice A, 'Direct patient care provider,' is incorrect as CNS typically focus more on education, research, and consultation rather than direct patient care. Choice B, 'Administrator of healthcare facilities,' is incorrect as this role is usually fulfilled by nurse administrators or nurse managers. Choice D, 'Policy maker in healthcare organizations,' is incorrect as policy-making roles are typically held by individuals in healthcare administration or government positions.

2. What is the primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing is to advocate for patient rights. While ensuring patient safety and providing emotional support are important aspects of nursing care, the core focus of patient advocacy is to uphold and protect the rights of patients. Providing financial assistance is not typically a primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing.

3. Which of the following best describes the concept of holistic nursing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'An approach that integrates the mind, body, and spirit in patient care.' Holistic nursing is a comprehensive approach that considers the whole person, including their physical, emotional, social, and spiritual well-being. Choice B is incorrect because holistic nursing goes beyond just physical health. Choice C is incorrect because holistic nursing considers various aspects of the patient, not just the physical condition. Choice D is incorrect because holistic nursing is focused on patient care and well-being, not hospital administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is ready to hear information regarding palliative care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because the client expressing a desire to know about measures available to keep comfortable indicates readiness for palliative care. Palliative care focuses on providing comfort, symptom management, and improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses such as terminal cancer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A indicates a desire for chemotherapy to cure the cancer, which does not align with palliative care goals. Choice B expresses a wish to end the situation quickly, which may not be in line with palliative care that focuses on comfort and quality of life. Choice D shows optimism about a full recovery, which may not be realistic for a client with terminal cancer who needs palliative care.

5. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

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